For: Questions and
answers email: theotherwomaninmarriage@gmail.com
This question below
was hinted us by one old lecturer and maybe, you never can tell, it will come
out.
Here is it:
QUESTION:
A company make N50,
000 profits from selling 10,000 units for N60,000 each. Its fixed cost (FC) is N150,000. What is the Break-Even Point?
SOLUTION:
BEP
= FC___
SP
– AVC
Now
variable cost is not given. It is a
technical error question: So we have to solve for Variable Cost (VC):
Profit
= TR – TC
p.q
– (Vc + Fc) = profit
The
p is selling price while the q is the quantity. So;
p.q
– (Vc + Fc) = profit
(60,000
x 10,000) – vc-150,000 = 50,000
Explanation:
- the 60,000 is the selling price, while the 10,000 is the quantity per
unit. VC is the unknown we are looking
and 150,000 is the fixed cost (fc) while 50,000 is the profit.
600,000,000 - vc – 150,000 = 50,000
Explanation:
600,000,000 is when you multiply 60,000 x 10,000. Vc is still the unknown the
minus after the vc is because we multiply minus by plus, it will give you
minus. The 150,000 is still the fc. While
the 50,000 is still the profit.
600,000,000
– vc=200,000
Explanation:
This 600,000,000 is the same above, while vc is the same above, but 200,000 has
crossed the equality sign to meet 50,000 and that makes it 200,000.
600,000,000
– 200,000=VC
Explanation:
Here, the vc has crossed the equality sign to the other side and we can now
minus 600,000,000 from 200,000 and that is how we got the answer below:
599,800,000
= VC:
Now
Average Variable Cost (AVC) = VC
Q
AVC
= 599,800,000
10,000
AVC
= 59,980
B.E.P
= FC___
SP – AVC
B.E.P
= 150,000____
60,000 – 59,980
B.E.P
= 150,000____
20
B.E.P
= 7,500 units
I
believe you understand the rest. But if
you don’t, you can always contact the otherwomaninmarriage@gmail.com
Without
all the explanation, this is how the workings should be:
SOLUTION:
BEP
= FC___
SP
– AVC
Profit
= TR – TC
p.q
– (Vc + Fc) = profit
p.q
– (Vc + Fc) = profit
(60,000
x 10,000) – vc-150,000 = 50,000
600,000,000 - vc – 150,000 = 50,000
600,000,000
– vc=200,000
600,000,000
– 200,000=VC
599,800,000
= VC:
Now
Average Variable Cost (AVC) = VC
Q
AVC
= 599,800,000
10,000
AVC
= 59,980
B.E.P
= FC___
SP – AVC
B.E.P
= 150,000____
60,000 – 59,980
B.E.P
= 150,000____
20
B.E.P
= 7,500 units
This
question is simple but so technical.
That is why you should practice it always.
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